Question text is in black, solutions in blue.
Q1: 15 points Q2: 25 points Q3: 30 points Q4: 30 points Total: 100 points
C must contain exactly those elements that are common to A and B.
The relation is a function if for every element a of A, there is exactly one element b of B such that (a, b) is in R.
R is reflexive if for every element a of A, (a, a) is in R.
If A and B are disjoint events (they cannot both happen), then Pr(A ∪ B) = Pr(A) + Pr(B). In general, the Sum Rule With Overlap says that Pr(A ∪ B) = Pr(A) + Pr(B) - Pr(A ∩ B). (Either rule was sufficient for full credit.)
The sample space is the set of all possible atomic events that might occur.
There are four choices for each dog, so by the product rule the total is 4×4×4×4×4 = 45 = 1024. Many people said "54", indicating that they tried to memorize a formula instead of understanding the reason for it.
Cardie may go into any of the three kennels, after which there are two remaining kennels into which Duncan might go, so by the Product Rule there are 3×2 = 6 total choices. This is also P(3, 2), the number of ways to choose two of the three kennels in order, without replacement.
There are C(5, 3) = (5×4×3)/(1×2×3) = 10 possible size-3 subsets of the size-5 set D.
By the "stars and bars" argument, we have a binary string with a 0 for each dog and a 1 for each division between kennels (between k1 and k2, between k2 and k3, and between k3 and k4. So we must count the binary strings with 5 0's and 3 1's, of which there are C(8, 3) = (8×7×6)/(1×2×3) = 56.
FALSE. It counts the functions from D to K.
TRUE.
TRUE. Choosing three dogs to go into k4 means deciding which two dogs will not go there.
TRUE. This is the "stars and bars" argument given above.
FALSE. All five dogs might go into k1, for example, leaving the others empty.
FALSE. There are no one-to-one functions from the five dogs to the four kennels, by the Pigeonhole Principle.
TRUE. D × K has 5 × 4 = 20 elements, while P(K) has 24 = 16.
TRUE. This is an equivalence relation, which is reflexive, symmetric, and transitive. It is not antisymmetric because it is possible (indeed certain) that two different dogs will go in the same kennel, making R(x, y) and R(y, x) both true with x ≠ y.
TRUE. We have four choices as to where to put Arly and Biscuit, four choices where to put Cardie and Duncan, and four choices where to put Ebony. By the Product Rule there are 4×4×4 = 43 total choices.
TRUE. After one dog is put in each kennel, the fifth dog must go somewhere, making that kennel have two dogs while the other three kennels have one each.
The expected number of spades in the first card is 1/4, because there is a 1/4 probability that this card is a spade. (The formula gives us Pr(one spade)(1) + Pr(no spades)(0) = 1/4.) Similarly the expected number in the second card is 1/4, and in the third card is 1/4. The total number of spades is the sum of these three values, so the expected value of the total number of spades is 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 = 3/4.
Method 1: There are C(52, 3) possible three-card hands, and C(39, 3)
three-card hands made from the 39 non-spades in the deck. So we
have a probability of C(39, 3)/C(52, 3) =
(39×38×37)/(52×51×50) = 0.4135. (You were not
expected to evaluate this arithmetic expression.)
Method 2: The first card is a non-spade with probability 39/52.
If it is a non-spade, the second card is also a non-spade with
probability 38/51, since there are now 38 non-spades in 52-card
deck. If the first two are not spades, we complete the hand of
three non-spades with probability 37/50, so the total probability
by the Product Rule is (39/52)\times;(38/51)×(37/50) = 0.4135.
Method 1: There are C(4, 3) = 4 ways to choose which three suits, and
then 13 ways to choose a card of each suit, so we have
4×133 = 8788 three-card hands with three different
suits.
We divide this number by C(52, 3) = 22100 to get 0.3976.
Method 2: The first card is a new suit with probabilty 1. The
second card is not the same suit as the first with probability
39/51. If the first two cards are of different suits, the third
card is a new suit with probability 26/50. So the probability is
1×(39/51)×(26/50) = 0.3976.
Method 1: There are C(4, 1) = 4 choices of suit, then C(13, 3) = 286
choices of three cards from that suit, for a total probability of
4*C(13, 3)/C(52, 3) = 1144/22100 = 0.0518.
Method 2: The first card is from some suit. The second card is of
the same suit with probability 12/51. If the first two cards are of
the same suit, the third is of that suit with probability 11/50. So
we have (12/51)×(11/50) = 132/2550 = 0.0518.
This problem was too hard for this exam, as I realized later. (In
effect, by moving the A line from 90 down to 85 I made this problem
half extra credit.)
Of the C(52, 3) = 22100 three-card hands, C(39, 3) = 9139 have no
spades, and C(13, 3) = 286 have four spades. How many have exactly
one spade? There are 13 way to pick the spade and C(39, 2) ways to
pick the two non-spades, for 13×((39×38)/(1×2)) =
9633. With exactly two spades, there are C(13, 2) = 78 ways to
pick the two spades and 39 ways to pick the one non-spade, for
78×39 = 3042. Since 9139 + 3042 = 12181 is greater than 9633
+ 286 = 9919, there is a larger chance of getting an even number.
But this was more arithmetic than I should reasonably have
expected you to do.
An approximation that gives the right answer in this case is to
replace the cards after each one is drawn, so that we have three
Bernoulli trials with probability 1/4. Then the probability of no
successes (no spades) is (3/4)3 = 27/64, of one spade is
C(3, 1)(1/4)(3/4)2 = 27/64, of two spades is C(3,
2)(1/4)2(3/4) = 9/64, and of three spades is
(1/4)3 = 1/64. Then because 27/64 + 9/64 is greater
than 27/64 + 1/64, there is a larger chance of an even number of
spades. But to use this method you would need to be confident that
the lack of replacement does not change the probabilities very much.
Last modified 28 November 2016