Q1: 10 points Q2: 10 points Q3: 10 points Q4: 10 points Q5: 30 points Q6: 30 points Total: 100 points
Question text is in black, solutions in blue.
FALSE. There are 24 = 16 possible sequences of four true/false choices, each equally likely. There are (4 choose 2) = 6 of these that have two true and two false. So the correct probability is 6/16 = 3/8, which is greater than 1/3.
FALSE. From our analysis of the Coupon Collector's Problem (Monday's lecture) we know that the expected time to get all n elements is about n ln n. If we were very likely to succeed within 2n choices, the expected time would have to be below 2n. (Note that the last element itself takes expected time n after the first n-1 have been found.)
TRUE. This probability is n!/nn, which by Stirling's Approximation is about e-n. The probability that the n'th choice is new given that the first n-1 are all different is 1/n, which goes to zero, and the total probability is less than that.
FALSE. This is an instance of the Fourth Counting Problem, with n = 3 and k = 5, so the solution is (n-1+k choose k), in this case (7 choose 5) = 21 which is less than 30.
There are three possible events: miss the first (0.4), make the first and miss the second (0.6*0.4 = 0.24) and make both (0.6*0.6 = 0.36). So her chance of no points is 0.4, of one is 0.24, and of two is 0.36.
We sum i times the probability of i, for 0*(0.4) + 1*(0.24) + 2*(0.36) or 0.96 points.
Applying the formula, we get E(X2) = 0*(0.4) + 1*(0.24) + 4*(0.36) = 1.68 points, so the variance is 1.68 - (0.96)2 = 0.7584.
There are now four possibilities: miss-miss (0 points, 0.16 probability), miss-make and make-miss (1 point probability 0.24 each or 0.48 total) and make-make (2 points, probability 0.36).
These are Bernoulli trials with n = 2 and p = 0.6, so the expected value is np = 1.2 points.
By the rule for Bernoulli trials, the variance is np(1-p) = 0.48 -- we could compute E(X2) directly as 0*0.16 + 1*0.48 + 4*0.36 = 1.92 and then get the variance as 1.92 - (1.2)2 = 0.48 as well.
Second Counting Problem (no replacement, order of cards matters): 523 = 52*51*50 = 132600.
To cound the three-different-rank hands, choose three different ranks in 13*12*11 ways, then multiply by 4*4*4 to choose the three suits, total 52*48*44 = 109824, probability = 109824/132600 = about 82.8%.
By symmetry, Angelina wins exactly one-third of the hands in (b), since each such hand must have a winner. So we get (109824/3)/132600 = 36608/132600 = about 27.6%.
There are (13 choose 2) = 78 ways to pick a set of two ranks. For each such pair of ranks, we can count the hands where Angelina has the higher rank and Brad and Celine each have the lower -- there are 4 times 42 = 4*12 = 48. So there are 78*48 = 3744 hands where Angelina wins and the ranks are not all different. Angelina's total winning hands are 36608 + 3744 = 40352, so her total winning probability is 40352/132600 = about 30.4%.
Brad knows that he has one of the 50 cards that he doesn't see, and that he is equally likely to have any of these cards. He can see how many cards are higher than both of the two cards he sees: 0 if he sees a card of the highest rank, 4 if he sees one of the next highest rank, 8 for the third highest rank, and so on down to 48 if both the cards he sees are of the lowest rank. So his winning probability is either 0/50, 4/50, 8/50,..., or 48/50.
Last modified 11 March 2008