The scale was A = 112, C = 70. The distribution of scores is given at the main CMPSCI 250 web page.
Q1: 45 points Q2: 15 points Q3: 25 points Q4: 40+5 points Total: 125+5 points
Thus P1 is "a1 → 0", P2 is "a2 → (a1 → 0)", P3 is "a3 → (a2 → (a1 → 0))", and so forth. Don't forget that for any propositions x and y, "x → y" is defined to be true unless both x is true and y is false.
Here are your problems:
Base case, with i=1: We must prove ¬(a1) → (a1
→ 0). Assume that a1 is false, then the implication is true
by the rule of vacuous proof, as its antecedent is false.
Inductive step: Assume ¬(a1) → Pi. We prove
"¬(a1) → Pi+1" by direct proof. Assume
¬(a1). Then by the IH and Modus Ponens, Pi is true.
Since Pi+1 is defined to be "ai+1 → Pi",
Pi+1 is true by the rule of trivial proof.
P1 is false only if a1 is true and 0 is false -- this
has a 1/2 probability because a1 is equally likely to be true or
false.
P2 is false only if a2 is true and P1 is
false. Since a2 does not occur in P1, these two
propositions are independent. So the probability that both are false is the
product of the probabilities that either is false, or (1/2)(1/2) = 1/4. Thus
the probability that P2 is true is 1 - (1/4) or 3/4.
P3 is false only if a3 is true and P2
is false, and again these two propositions are independent. So the probability
that P3 is false is (1/2)(1/4) = 1/8, and the probability that it is
true is 1 - (1/8) or 7/8.
From the examples, the rule appears to be Prob(Pi) = 1 -
2-i, so we will prove this statement by ordinary induction for all
naturals i.
For i=0, Prof(P0 is 0 by the definition of P0 as 0,
and 1 - 2-0 = 1 - 1 = 0, so the base case is proved.
For general positive i, Prob(Pi) = 1 - Prob(Pi is
false) = 1 - Prob(ai is true and Pi-1 is false) =
1 - Prob(ai)Prob(Pi-1) because of independence, as the
atomic proposition ai does not appear in Pi-1.
This is 1 - (1/2)(2-(i-1) by the IH, which is 1 - 2-i
by arithmetic.
Reflexive property: ∀a: R(a,a)
Symmetric property: ∀a:∀b: R(a,b) → R(b,a)
Transitive property: ∀a:∀b:∀c: (R(a,b) ∧ R(b,c))
→ R(a,c)
∀a:∀b: R(a,b) → [∀c:∀d: (R(c,a) ∧ R(d,b)) → R(c,d)]
Here the symbol I means "infinity":
We take this matrix X and compute the matrix X6 using min-plus
matrix multiplication, with the minimum operation as "addition" and the
ordinary addition operation as "multiplication". We compute the sixth power
because 6 = n-1, where n is the number of nodes in the graph.
A B C D E F G
---------------------
A| 0 2 3 I I I I
B| 2 0 I 4 1 I I
C| 3 I 0 3 I I 2
D| I 4 3 0 I 1 I
E| I 1 I I 0 0 2
F| I I I 1 1 0 2
G| I I 2 I I 2 0
In the BFS, we find B and C from A, find D and E from B, find G (and the
non-tree edge to D) from C, find F from D, and find non-tree edges to F from
both E and G. The tree looks like this, where stars denote non-tree edges:
In the DFS, we find B from A, D from B, and C from D, find the non-tree
edge from C to A, then find G from C, F from G, the non-tree edge to D from F,
E from F, and the non-tree edge to B from E. The DFS tree is a straight line
through the nodes A, B, D, C, G, F, and E, with the three non-tree back edges
as indicated. Other valid trees are possible given different choices of which
neighbor of a node to visit first. But note that the DFS cannot finish
processing a node without looking at all of that node's neighbors.
A
/ \
/ \
B C
/ \ * \
/ \ * \
E D G
* | *
* | *
* | *
* | *
*|*
F
Here are your questions:
There are 8! or 88 = 40320 orders.
Solution 1: There are 4! orders of the boys, and 4! orders of the girls, so
there are (4!)2 = 576 possible orders where the boy-girl arrangement
holds. So the probability is 576/40320 = 1/70.
Solution 2: There are (8 choose 4) = 70 ways to pick four of the eight
positions for the boys, and all are equally likely, so the probability is 1/70.
Solution 3: There is 4/8 chance of placing a boy first, then a 4/7 chance
of a girl second, a 3/6 chance of a boy third, and so on for a total
probability of (4/8)(4/7)(3/6)(3/5)(2/4)(2/3)(1/2)(1/1) = 1/70 as in solution
1.
Solution 1: The 3! = 6 possible relative orders of Abigail, Edward, and
Frank are each equally likely, so there is a 1/6 chance they will occur in the
given order.
Solution 2: There are eight equally likely positions for Abigail, so each
has 1/8 probability. In each, we can calculate the probability that Edward
is ahead of Abigail and Frank behind her. In each case, there are
72 = 42 ways to place Edward and Frank in two of the seven
remaining positions. If Abigail is in position 1 or 8, none of these have
Edward ahead of Abigail and Frank behind. If she is in position 2 or 7, six
of the 42 choices meet this condition. (For example, if Abigail is in position
2 we can put Edward in position 1 and Frank in 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8.) If
Abigail is in position 3 or 6 there are 2*5 = 10 ways to place Edward and Frank
and meet the conditions. If Abigail is in position 4 or 5 there are 3*4 = 12
ways to do it. Overall our probability is (1/8)(1/42)(0+6+10+12+12+10+6+0) =
56/(8*42) = 1/6.
Solution 1: Think of Edward-Abigail-Frank as a single unit -- there are 6!
ways to order this unit and the five other students, so the probability that
we get one of these orders is 6!/8! = 1/56.
Solution 2: There are (8 choose 3) possible sets of three positions for
Edward, Abigail, and Frank, and six of these are consecutive: 123, 234, 345,
456, 567, and 678. So there is a 6/56 chance they will be consecutive, and a
1/6 chance they will be in the right order, so (6/56)(1/6) = 1/56 probability
overall.
Solution 3: To find an order with Edward, Abigail, and Frank consecutive in
that order, we place those three in any of those six sets of positions, then
place the other five students in 5! possible ways. So there are 6*5! orders
with them consecutive, and a probability of 6*5!/8! = 1/56.
Solution 1: There are (8 choose 3) choices of this set, and each is equally likely, making the probability 1/56.
Solution 2: There is a 3/8 chance that one of those three comes first, then
a 2/7 chance that one of the other two comes second, then a 1/6 chance that the
last of the three comes third, for (3/8)(2/7)(1/6) = 1/56.
Solution 1: This is the Fourth Counting Problem with k=3 and n=8, as we are
choosing a multiset of size three from the eight-element set. The number of
such multisets is (k+n-1 choose k) = (10 choose 3), or (k+n-1 choose n-1) =
(10 choose 7) = 120.
Solution 2: There are 8 ways to give all three stars to the same person,
2(8 choose 2) ways to give two to one student and the third to another, and
(8 choose 3) ways to pick a set of three to get one star each. The total is
8 + 2(8 choose 2) + (8 choose 3) = 8 + 56 + 56 = 120.
Solution 1: There are 83 sequences of three students, and
83 sequences with no repeats. Each such sequence is
equally likely, so the probability is 8*7*6/8*8*8 = 42/64 = 21/32.
Solution 2: After the first star goes to some student, there is a 7/8
chance that the second star does not go to the same student. If this happens
there is then a 6/8 chance that the third star goes to a third student, so the
total probability is (7/8)(6/8) = 21/32.
Many people who used Solution 2 for part (f) thought that these 120 ways
of awarding the stars were equally likely and thus answered 56/120 for part
(g). This is incorrect -- of the 512 equally likely ways to award the three
stars in a sequence, six result in each of the 56 sets of three separate
winners, three result in each of the 56 ways to give two to one and one to
another, and one results in each of the eight ways to give all three to the
same student.
Last modified 21 December 2007